COMPTIA SECURITY+ Exam SY0-701 Questions V8.02 CompTIA Security+ Topics - CompTIA Security+ Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] 1.A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud-based. Which of the following meets these requirements? A. Serverless framework B. Type 1 hvpervisor C. SD-WAN D. SDN Answer: A Explanation: A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions. A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer. SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud- based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD- WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet. SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] OpenDaylight, and OpenStack. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264-265; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD- WAN]; [SDN]. 2.A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following: Which of the following is the best explanation for what the security analyst has discovered? A. The user jsmith's account has been locked out. B. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation C. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account. D. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain. Answer: C Explanation: Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker’s IP address, reset ismith’s password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 3.Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository? A. Jailbreaking B. Memory injection C. Resource reuse Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] D. Side loading Answer: D Explanation: Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities, such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices. References = Sideloading - CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training, Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers C CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 C 2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide. 4.A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use? A. Packet captures B. Vulnerability scans C. Metadata D. Dashboard Answer: D Explanation: A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12. A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13. A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14. Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97. 5.A technician needs to apply a high-priority patch to a production system. Which of the following steps should be taken first? A. Air gap the system. B. Move the system to a different network segment. C. Create a change control request. D. Apply the patch to the system. Answer: C Explanation: = A change control request is a document that describes the proposed change to a system, the reason for the change, the expected impact, the approval process, the testing plan, the implementation plan, the rollback plan, and the communication plan. A change control request is a best practice for applying any patch to a production system, especially a high-priority one, as it ensures that the change is authorized, documented, tested, and communicated. A change control request also minimizes the risk of unintended consequences, such as system downtime, data loss, or security breaches. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 235. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 13. 6.Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII? A. SCAP B. Net Flow C. Antivirus D. DLP Answer: D Explanation: DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer’s PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11. 7.A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations. Which of the following should the hosting provider consider first? A. Local data protection regulations B. Risks from hackers residing in other countries C. Impacts to existing contractual obligations D. Time zone differences in log correlation Answer: A Explanation: Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage. Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 7, page 269. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 14. 8.A technician wants to improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work. Which of the following is the best option? A. Send out periodic security reminders. B. Update the content of new hire documentation. C. Modify the content of recurring training. D Implement a phishing campaign Answer: C Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Explanation: Recurring training is a type of security awareness training that is conducted periodically to refresh and update the knowledge and skills of the users. Recurring training can help improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work, as it can cover the latest threats, best practices, and policies that are relevant to their work environment. Modifying the content of recurring training can ensure that the users are aware of the current security landscape and the expectations of their roles. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 232. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18. 9.A cyber operations team informs a security analyst about a new tactic malicious actors are using to compromise networks. SIEM alerts have not yet been configured. Which of the following best describes what the security analyst should do to identify this behavior? A. [Digital forensics B. E-discovery C. Incident response D. Threat hunting Answer: D Explanation: Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise in a network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise (IOCs) to appear. Threat hunting can help identify new tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by malicious actors, as well as uncover hidden or stealthy threats that may have evaded detection by security tools. Threat hunting requires a combination of skills, tools, and methodologies, such as hypothesis generation, data collection and analysis, threat intelligence, and incident response. Threat hunting can also help improve the security posture of an organization by providing feedback and recommendations for security improvements. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1: Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators of malicious activity. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 4: Threat Detection and Response, page 153. Threat Hunting C SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1, Video 3:18. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 3. 10.A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure. Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data? Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] A. Private B. Critical C. Sensitive D. Public Answer: C Explanation: Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical. Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages. Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies. Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property. Critical data is data that is essential for the organization’s operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups. Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 - Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30. 11.Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries? A. Insider B. Unskilled attacker C. Nation-state D. Hacktivist Answer: C Explanation: A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 2.1, video by Professor Messer. 12.You are security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network. Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the Infecton and then deny each remaining hosts clean or infected. Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Answer: Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] Explanation: Based on the logs, it seems that the host that originated the infection is 192.168.10.22. This host has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, which is unusual for a Windows service. It also has a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443, indicating that it is part of a botnet. The firewall log shows that this host has been communicating with 10.10.9.18, which is another infected host on the engineering network. This host also has a suspicious Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] process named svchost.exe running on port 443, and a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443. The other hosts on the R&D network (192.168.10.37 and 192.168.10.41) are clean, as they do not have any suspicious processes or connections. 13.A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee’s corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation. Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source? A. Application B. IPS/IDS C. Network D. Endpoint Answer: D Explanation: An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable. An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics. Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown. An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols. A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers. Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior. References: https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/observability/application-log/ https://owasp.org/www-project-proactive-controls/v3/en/c9-security-logging 14.An administrator was notified that a user logged in remotely after hours and copied large amounts of data to a personal device. Which of the following best describes the user’s activity? A. Penetration testing B. Phishing campaign C. External audit D. Insider threat Answer: D Explanation: An insider threat is a security risk that originates from within the organization, such as an employee, contractor, or business partner, who has authorized access to the organization’s data and systems. An insider threat can be malicious, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging sensitive data, or unintentional, such as falling victim to phishing or social engineering. An insider threat can cause significant damage to the organization’s reputation, finances, operations, and legal compliance. The user’s activity of logging in remotely after hours and copying large amounts of data to a personal device is an example of a malicious insider threat, as it violates the organization’s security policies and compromises the confidentiality and integrity of the data. References = Insider Threats C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 3.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 133. 15.Which of the following would be the best way to block unknown programs from executing? A. Access control list B. Application allow list. C. Host-based firewall D. DLP solution Answer: B Explanation: An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] are explicitly authorized and verified. An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network12. The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing: - Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object. An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing13. - Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system. A host-based firewall can block or allow network connections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 . - DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data. A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 . References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Application Whitelisting C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 3.5, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100. 16.Which of the following security control types does an acceptable use policy best represent? A. Detective B. Compensating C. Corrective D. Preventive Answer: D Explanation: An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1. An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent them from exploiting or harming the system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2. Some examples of preventive controls are: Use Updated CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Exam Questions for Guaranteed Success [2023-2024] - Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device - Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system - Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or availability of the network or the system, such as: - Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software - Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption - Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes - Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms - Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions or inactions3. References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why You Need A Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA 17.An employee clicked a link in an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The employee entered the log-in information but received a “page not found” error message. Which of the following types of social engineering attacks occurred? A. Brand impersonation B. Pretexting C. Typosquatting D. Phishing Answer: D Explanation: Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information, such as log- in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one. The employee entered the log-in